Oral Medicine (OMED) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Intracranial aneurysms most commonly cause focal neurological deficits from compression.
• Which of the following is a dental implication for patients with a history of cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
• True or False: Any increase in sympathetic tone of a patient (whether endogenous from anxiety or exogenous from vasoconstrictors) can precipitate an arrhythmia.
• What is the principal cause of death in patients with ITP?
• ________ is an autoimmune disorder in which antibody-coated or immune complex-coated platelets are destroyed prematurely, resulting in peripheral thrombocytopenia
• True or False: Nitroglycerin provides little to no relief in acute myocardial infarction.
• Angiography findings indicate multiple intracranial aneurysms in approximately what percentage of cases?
• Which sequence correctly identifies the two categories of hypertensive crisis?
• What is an example of an indirect pathway between periodontal disease and cardiovascular disease?
• What is the prognosis for pediatric ITP cases?
• For patients under 60, what systolic/diastolic threshold typically prompts pharmacologic treatment initiation?
• Which type of hypotension may be a problem for patients taking antihypertensive medications?
• Which statement best defines hypertensive emergency?
• Hypertensive crisis can be split into two categories. Which pair correctly names them?
• In the NYHA classification, which class denotes marked limitation of activity with symptoms with less than ordinary activity?
• _________ Cardiomyopathy is typically characterized by impaired systolic function and global myocardial akinesia.
• For an abdominal aortic aneurysm smaller than 5.5 cm, what is the typical management?
• Which statement best distinguishes a symptom complex from a disease entity in congestive heart failure?
• What is the most dangerous long term result of untreated dilated cardiomyopathy?
• In CAD/Angina evaluation, a patient should be able to perform at least how many METS without anginal symptoms?
• Which medication is not listed among the initial management steps for suspected acute MI in the source material?
• If a patient is currently taking warfarin or direct acting oral anticoagulants, what analgesic should NOT be used?
• A patient with hypertension under medical management, but not well controlled is classified as ASA _______.
• For adults over 18 with kidney disease or diabetes, what threshold prompts initiation of pharmacologic therapy?
• Which analgesic should NOT be used in patients taking warfarin or direct acting oral anticoagulants?
• The genetic basis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy typically involves mutations in genes encoding which components?
• ________ angina is angina with usual daily activity (NYHA)
• On a panoramic radiograph, what finding may indicate an increased risk for a cerebrovascular accident?
• What are the three major types of angina pectoris?
• Which cardiomyopathy is usually associated with a reduced stroke volume due to impaired diastolic filling?
• In a hypertensive crisis, which finding mandates immediate medical treatment?
• Heart muscle disease attributable to intrinsic myocardial dysfunction is collectively known as _____________
• What type of intracranial aneurysm accounts for about 90% of cases?
• Which statement best describes the risk for patients with existing arrhythmias during dental treatment?
• Which diastolic abnormality is characteristic of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
• Pathologic Q waves on an electrocardiogram are most indicative of:
• Which cardiomyopathy is the most common form?
• How can stable angina present on an ECG?
• A post-MI mitral regurgitation can lead to which complications?
• Which statement best describes when vasoconstrictor use is almost always contraindicated due to arrhythmias?
• Which are examples of major cardiovascular risk patients?
• In which population is ITP more likely to be diagnosed incidentally due to insidious presentation?
• An arrhythmia that is not medicated and causes no/minimal symptoms would be classified as ASA Class ________.
• Patients with hypertension and BPs 140-159/90-99 can have what types of treatment?
• In restrictive cardiomyopathy, which cardiac chamber is typically enlarged?
• A patient with untreated hypertension or inadequately treated is classified as ASA _______.
• Which type of valve regurgitation is most common after myocardial infarction?
• Which of the following is NOT considered a major class of anti-ischemic agents used to treat angina?
• Which class of medication is usually not recommended for concurrent use with warfarin or direct acting oral anticoagulants?
• What is the main goal of pharmacologic treatment of hypertension?
• Patients with hypertension and BPs 160-179/100-109 can have what types of treatment?
• What is the preferred method to restore blood flow in STEMI when available?
• For a patient with major cardiovascular risk requiring emergency dental treatment, the care should ideally be provided in which setting?
• CCS Class II angina (and vasospastic anginas) translates to ASA Class?
• What is the major aim of treatment for patients with intracranial aneurysms?
• For patients over 60, what systolic/diastolic threshold typically prompts pharmacologic treatment initiation?
• ________ angina is angina at rest (NYHA)
• For a patient with well-controlled hypertension, which statement is true regarding the use of vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia?
• What term describes cardiovascular necrosis due to insufficient oxygen supply to a region of the heart?
• Variant angina can occur at rest.
• What is Levine's sign?
• How are most abdominal aortic aneurysms diagnosed?
• What is the minimum blood pressure goal for treated hypertension?
• Titin is a sarcomere protein located in the:
• Which statement best describes the sensitivity of detecting an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
• In ITP, which population tends to have a sudden presentation due to severe thrombocytopenia?
• Which of the following is a high-risk arrhythmia?
• Patients with hypertension and BPs >180/110 can have what types of treatment?
• In STEMI, which of the following is most accurate about the electrocardiogram changes?
• Congestive heart failure is a ____________ as opposed to a disease entity.
• Which finding indicates increased risk for aspiration after CVA?
• CCS Class III and IV Anginas translate to ASA Class?
• Patients with hypertension and BPs under 140/90 can have what types of treatment?
• Any high risk arrhythmia or heavily symptomatic arrhythmia is ASA class _______.
• Which cardiomyopathy is the most frequent cause of death in young athletes?
• A recent MI with evidence of important ischemic risk by clinical symptoms or noninvasive study would put a patient as ______ risk for dental treatment.
• Which condition constitutes a major cardiovascular risk for elective invasive dental treatment?
• True or False: About 20 percent of myocardial infarction cases present without chest pain, especially in older adults or those with diabetes.
• Which imaging modality best estimates the size of a preoperative abdominal aortic aneurysm with precision to about 0.3 mm?
• __________ is a selective inhibitor of cardiac myosin that can be helpful in treating hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
• What percentage of stable angina shows a normal ECG?
• BNP provides predictive information for risk stratification in acute coronary syndromes.
• In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, what is a mechanism by which stroke may occur?
• Which antibiotics should be avoided for those on digoxin?
• Which therapy is commonly considered when PCI is not immediately available for suspected MI?
• Beta-adrenergic blocking agents in evolving acute MI are:
• A negative result on a direct assay for platelet-bound antibodies means that ITP can be ruled out of the differential diagnosis list.
• Which type of angina is more likely to develop into ventricular arrhythmias?
• Which system destroys platelets in ITP?
• ___________ is characterized by discomfort that occurs when myocardial oxygen demand exceeds the supply
• What is the main treatment measure for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
• If readily available without delay, which intervention is superior for STEMI treatment?
• In a medical consult for patients with an aortic or intracranial aneurysm, which item should be discussed?
• Macrolides to avoid with digoxin?
• The American Heart Association risk classification of dental procedures primarily indicates which of the following?
• Which oral disease is associated with increased risk for cardiovascular disease?
• CABG is recommended for left main coronary artery disease with LVEF less than 40% and stenosis greater than 70% in all three major arteries.
• A permanent localized dilation of the abdominal aortic artery to at least 50% when compared to a normal diameter is known as a/an
• A 65-year-old patient has a blood pressure of 152/92 and no kidney disease or diabetes. Should pharmacologic therapy be initiated?
• Which ASA class corresponds to CCS Class II angina (and vasospastic anginas)?
• In restrictive cardiomyopathy, which ventricles are typically affected by failure?
• What are the main symptoms and results of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
• Which statement about elective dental treatment in patients with CHF is true?
• ACE inhibitors after acute MI slow the progression of CHF. True or False?
• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can cause left ventricular outflow tract obstruction.
• Hypertensive urgency is best described as?
• Rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm has a fatality rate of approximately what percent?
• What is the most common cause of cerebrovascular accidents (strokes)?
• What is the most significant complication of intracranial aneurysms?
• Which ASA class requires deferral of elective dental treatment and hospital-based urgent care?
• Thrombocytopenia is defined as a platelet count less than ______?
• For ASA IV Angina or ASA IV previous MI, what is the recommended protocol?
• True or False: The current professionally recognized criteria for BP elevation and dental treatment contraindication are defined by a single universal threshold such as 180/110.
• Which factor is NOT a minor cardiovascular risk factor?
• Mavacamten is marketed under which name?
• A patient with well-controlled hypertension is classified as ASA _______.
• Which type of hypertension medication is known to present drug-induced gingival hyperplasia?
• Pathologic Q waves on an ECG indicate:
• ASA classification for a patient with history of TIA or CVA within three months or unstable post-CVA status.
• A blood pressure reading of 182/122 in a dental patient should prompt what action?
• Saccular intracranial aneurysms occur at arterial bifurcations.
• Splenomegaly could be a clue to other possible causes of thrombocytopenia.
• A patient records a blood pressure above __________ should receive prompt medical evaluation
• What is the recommended management for an abdominal aortic aneurysm when the diameter is greater than 5.5 cm?
• Which statement describes the age-related onset pattern in ITP?
• CCS Class I angina translates to ASA Class?
• Mycotic aneurysms due to septic emboli typically involve which type of vessels compared to other cerebral aneurysms?
• A patient with a prior myocardial infarction or documentation of pathological Q waves with cardiovascular status stable would place the patient in what risk category for dental treatment?
• Prinzmetal angina can occur in cardiovascularly normal people.
• Splenomegaly is a common occurrence in those with ITP.
• The majority of cerebrovascular accidents are caused by which mechanism?
• Which term describes a cardiomyopathy characterized by restrictive ventricular filling due to decreased ventricular compliance and distensibility?
• ________ angina is angina with slightly more prolonged or rigorous activity than usual (NYHA)
• How is hypertension clinically defined?
• Most cases of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are genetic in nature.
• An MDAS score of _______ or higher often requires the use of pharmacologic means for anxiety control (such as nitrous).
• In hypertensive emergency, which action is required?
• Transthyretin amyloid cardiomyopathy is a form of which cardiomyopathy?
• After thrombolytic therapy for an acute myocardial infarction, high-grade arrhythmias are commonly attributed to reperfusion. Which type of arrhythmia is most likely?
• According to the NYHA, classification of CHF for symptomatic with low exertion is class _______
• A mutation in the TTN gene encoding which sarcomere protein can cause dilated cardiomyopathy?
• What dental device is most at risk for interfering with pacemakers or implanted cardioverter-defibrillators (ICDs)?
• What is an example of a direct pathway between periodontal disease and cardiovascular disease?
• Which statement about TIAs is correct?
• What cardiovascular medication can cause reflex bradycardia and a rise in blood pressure when combined with epinephrine?
• According to the American Heart Association, most dental procedures are classified as which level of surgical risk?
• What is the most important diagnostic factor for those with angina?
• Which dental issue may be observed in patients with a history of CVA and affects hygiene on one side?
• Which cardiomyopathy can sometimes be treated with an implantable pacemaker to alleviate LVOT obstruction?
• Unstable angina usually has a more recent onset with increasing severity and frequency.
• What BP reading is associated with the deferral of elective dental treatment and palliative care only?
• Although NYHA CHF classifications II and III both have an ASA classification of III, what is the main difference between the two?
• Which statement best characterizes the relationship between periodontal disease and cardiovascular disease?
• How is a recent myocardial infarction defined?
• Cardiac troponin __________ are specific markers of myocardial necrosis and are useful in evaluating patients with acute chest pain
• Which statement about the relationship between NYHA classifications II and III and ASA classification is true?
• What type of medications commonly used to treat hypertension have been known to cause lichenoid-like reactions on the oral mucosa?
• True/False: A history of MI greater than 30 days with adequately controlled risk factors and stable post-MI status would put a patient in ASA Class III.
• Which conditions can predispose someone to an arrhythmia?
• Which are examples of intermediate cardiovascular risk patients?
• Carotid calcifications on panoramic radiographs are most concerning at which anatomical site?
• Which therapy should be given to any patient with suspected acute MI?
• Besides thrombosis, which is a recognized cause of cerebrovascular accident?
• For ASA III designation, how long must the MI history be?
• Following a CVA, the tongue may be:
• A 45-year-old patient has a blood pressure of 138/88 and kidney disease. Should pharmacologic therapy be initiated?
• BNP is stored mainly in the ventricular myocardium.
• What can occur if you take digoxin and have a vasoconstrictor?
• Which statement about dilated cardiomyopathy is true?
• What is considered the most efficient method to diagnose intracranial aneurysms?
• When is the use of local anesthetic containing vasoconstrictor heavily contraindicated with respect to blood pressure?
• ________ angina is angina only with unusually strenuous activity (NYHA)
• Hypertensive emergency is best described as?
• Which of the following lists the conditions that collectively predispose to arrhythmias?
• Should low-dose aspirin or anti-platelet therapy for post MI patients be interrupted for routine invasive dental procedures?
• Minimally invasive procedures with respect to CHF include. __________
• Which statement best describes the relationship between periodontal disease and cardiovascular disease?
• What two purposes does cardiac risk stratification serve?
• What is a common early symptom of dilated cardiomyopathy?
• The threshold duration after which a transient ischemic attack is considered a stroke is:
• Which statement best describes Prinzmetal angina?
• Which cardiomyopathy shows impaired systolic function?
• What proportion of abdominal aortic aneurysms are asymptomatic?
• Rank the three types of cardiomyopathy from most common to least common.
• In acute myocardial infarction, women are more likely to report which symptom?
• Which patient profile would most likely lead to a recommendation for CABG rather than medical therapy?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three major risk factors for intracranial aneurysms?
• Restrictive cardiomyopathy usually presents with univentricular congestive heart failure.
• According to the NYHA, classification of CHF for symptomatic with ordinary exertion is class _________.
• Transthyretin amyloid cardiomyopathy is a form of which cardiomyopathy?
• Stable angina is the only relatively predictable type.
• In ITP, which system destroys the platelets?
• A patient with an MDAS score of 13 or higher would likely require pharmacologic means for anxiety control. Which method is commonly used?
• What is the prognosis for patients with ITP?
• Which ASA class corresponds to CCS Class III and IV anginas?
• Patients with dilated cardiomyopathy have significantly increased risk for which arrhythmias?
• Variant angina presents with ST segment elevations on the ECG.
• Which of the following is a major risk factor for intracranial aneurysm?
• Which symptom is more likely to be reported by women with AMI compared to men?
• Nitrous oxide use in patients with cardiovascular pathologies has which of the following characteristics?
• Approximately what fraction of patients with untreated TIAs will eventually suffer a cerebrovascular accident?
• Variant angina is a relatively predictable phenomenon
• In dilated cardiomyopathy with impaired systolic function, LVEF is usually:
• In a dental office, when should blood pressure and pulse rate be taken?
• Saccular intracranial aneurysms most commonly occur at which location?
• _________ is a natriuretic and vasodilative peptide stored mainly in the ventricular myocardium can provide predictive information for risk stratification in acute coronary syndromes
• If a patient is NYHA class II or III, what ASA class is typically assigned?
• ASA classification for a patient who had a TIA or CVA over three months ago and is adequately treated/stable.
• Which troponin subunits are used as specific markers of myocardial necrosis?
• Patients with major predictors of preoperative cardiovascular risk are ___________ acceptable candidates for elective invasive dental treatment
• What is the recommended management for a hypertensive patient with BP 160-179/100-109 when dental care is required?
• Which arrhythmia is listed as a high-risk condition when untreated?
• Which phrase defines angina pectoris?
• Which percentage defines the dilation threshold for an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
• Intracranial aneurysms most commonly present with which type of symptoms?
• If a patient has situational anxiety related to dental treatment, what would be a good resource to use?
• Due to interrelationships between etiologies and pathologies of cardiovascular disease, patients with one form of CVD are at increased risk to develop another type.
• What is a good way to check for the aspiration risk of a patient with CVA history?
• Which of the following is NOT a major predictor of preoperative cardiovascular risk?
• An asymptomatic arrhythmia that is currently being medicated is classified as ASA class ________.
• Levine's sign is best described as which of the following?
• According to the NYHA, classification of CHF for symptomatic at rest is class ________
• Which of the following are minor cardiovascular risk patients?